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Mike Miller wrote:
>
> Stephen-- What do mathemeticians say is the answer to mod(x,0) where x is
> an integer?
>
I would think that most mathematicians would say that it is undefined,
although I can see a case being made for it to be always zero.
If you want x as the result, I would say that
mod(x,infinity) = x.
By the way, there is a sensible notion of mod(x,y) when y is not an integer -
it is used a lot, especially when y = 2 pi.
--
Stephen Montgomery-Smith EMAIL:PROTECTED
307 Math Science Building EMAIL:PROTECTED
Department of Mathematics EMAIL:PROTECTED
University of Missouri-Columbia
Columbia, MO 65211
USA
Phone (573) 882 4540
Fax (573) 882 1869
http://www.math.missouri.edu/~stephen
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