Re: [MLUG - DISCUSSION] Origin of SPAM (Yes! I am a google GOD)

[Mikhail Kovalenko <EMAIL:PROTECTED>]

Mike Miller wrote (in response to Matt Ross):
>>>For example, they could have pronounced them like 'snaffuh' and
>>>'fuhbar' (pronouncing the 'u' as in 'up') or like 'snafyoo' and
>>>'fyoobar', but they didn't.  Why not? Well, maybe it was because 'foo'
>>>was already popular and funny and so they wanted to use the foo sound
>>>in their new funny term.
>>
>>Then you're suggesting the pronunciation is based on "foo" rather than
>>the words derivation?
> 
> Of course I'm suggesting that something *might* be true, not that it is
> true, (a subtle point, I guess) and you are suggesting that it is
> impossible.  How can a pronunciation be based on a derivation?  What do
> you mean?  If the 'FU' in FUBAR comes from "fucked up," as it obviously
> does, then "pronunciation based on derivation" should lead to the
> pronunciation of FUBAR as "fuhbar," right?  So the pronunciation is not
> based on the derivation.
> 

What are you two arguing about? As far as I'm concerned, it all sounds 
the same, just written differently. Isn't it a common problem with the 
English language, anyway?

;)
--
MK


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